Here's what I don't understand, maybe somebody would like to clarify this in the comments. The doctors make their own money and the 501a, according to both the 501a contract as well as Ray Reynolds saying so (see following video) exists solely to provide operational support to the doctors IF THERE IS A SHORTFALL.
So, in other words, the 501a isn't paying the doctor's salaries, unless it's doing it as a hidden way to use taxpayer money through the terms of a loose, little accountability contract.
Now here comes a lien. It's on the 501a Healthcare organization, which at least theoretically, although there aren't minutes to be found to prove it, is the DOCTORS and one member from the hospital to manage services. Since the optional money was already put in the budget for the year (and not even one nickel HAS to be spent, you understand), then WHY and HOW did GRMC pay off the lien which included penalties? Someone please explain to me why this has anything at all to do with payroll. I could be wrong, so I'm asking. Seems to me at this juncture that the money would have come from the budgeted amount for 501a which is only supposed to go for operational expenses. I assume, IF THAT IS SO, that the doctors said, Look, we can't pay payroll for the people that work for us in our healthcare practice, and we've incurred this IRS lien, we need you to give us money to pay it off. IF that is so, then the budget for the 501a should be decremented by the amount of the IRS lien. If not, then what account did it come from? Second, this begs the question about why the doctors wouldn't have been able to make their payroll and thus continue operationally. Has anyone looked, since this involves TAXPAYER MONEY, at their stats?
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